Okay . . . but if you settle a case, say, and execute a settlement agreement and releases, why would you leave yourself open to be sued again by agreeing to a dismissal without prejudice? Wouldn't it be a separate cause of action to sue for breach of the settlement agreement or releases?
Anyway, it is my guess and conjecture that this is a voluntary dismissal of a single party or two parties without prejudce and the rest of the case is continuing. I doubt there has been a settlement, but I would love to be proven wrong.
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