WHATTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTT ? announced that it will be distributing a 20 cent (twenty cent) per share dividend to shareholders who have continuously held company stock since September 30, 2005. Except himeself, who has stock since 2005 and how many shares ?
Sounds good, but just my measly 200,000 shares alone would account for $40,000 in dividends. How can they then cap their total outlay at only $250,000? Whoops, I didn't realize it was 2005, not 2008. Makes sense then, much fewer shares outstanding.
Could this .20 divvy be an attempt to stop the shorting by shareholders from a previous era? We've seen some strange manipulation going on. If it's connected, this should stop it.