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enemem

08/02/08 3:41 PM

#19361 RE: wahjjhugo #19360

One thing I'll be looking at is the effective dose in RD 2. If it's at the low end of the dosages administered, the likelihood of preserving analgesia is higher.

If the effective dose is higher than the 1500 mg administered in RD 1, then only a negative result in RD 1 will be unambiguous. Preservation of analgesia @ 1500 mg does not rule out that at the higher effective dose (2100 mg if that were the case) analgesia is compromised.

I don't think this is such a big problem though, since the arousal response rather than RD is what is being tested here. Still, I think an effective dose at or below 1500 mg is a reason for more optimism.