Proellex is a pure antagonist. Asoprisnol is a mixed agonist/antagonist.
How can you be a mixed agonist/antagonist for the same receptor? In a key and lock analogy you are either blocking the lock - or picking the lock.
Unless there are multiple keys and multiple locks - e.g. it is an agonist in the tissue x receptor for progesterone but an antagonist in the tissue y receptor.
Just to repeat - I am not sure that this is a particularly important question, but in this FDA environment it is probably of some benefit to have some explanations for why they are different.
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