InvestorsHub Logo

iwondertoo

04/23/24 3:30 PM

#360566 RE: ponzi_implosion #360564

My recollection of the conversion was that it was a percentage of the market price of commons. How, or if, that would transfer to preferred, I guess would be up to whoever made the claim. I am not sure that preferred shares were saleable on the market, so they would have to be exchanged to common to make any money off of, and for that they would have to authorize more shares. I can only vaguely remember the exchange rate preferred to commons, and what is in my head may pertain to a different company