Thank you for the summary!! I have a question regarding this sentence from the summary:
"So, in 2023, the holder of the IGOR Note received shares equal to 60% of the total O/S of the company, yet apparently never held--at any one time--more than 5% of the company's stock (which would violate the Note terms). "
Here's the question: What is the 5% max holding rule based on? "Approved shares"? The company is worth what the market is willing to pay (i.e., market capital). So, how can a lender own 60% of the stock yet own 5% or less of its value? In the case of the IGOR note, did the lender buy/sell no more than 5% of the company's stock at a time ... repetitively?
Appreciate you.
Bullish