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skeptic7

01/16/24 3:52 PM

#782148 RE: FOFreddie #782061

I know they have "expensed" the damages, which also makes this even more challenging. Can't figure out how that works. The entities expense potential damages on behalf of the FHFA that they are allegedly scheduled to receive at some possible point in the future. Does that make any sense when considered that they actually never received damages from banks that settled with them for selling MBS's under fraudulent terms for which the FHFA sued on behalf of the GSE's? It seems beyond circular.