But I do know the answer to this question. Can you show the math that the Company used to get to the indicated percentage?
Ask yourself: What would have to happen to result in an increase in an ownership percentage when it is "fully diluted"?
"the Company owns approximately 35.7% of SML’s issued and outstanding equity securities and approximately 41.6% (not 41.7%) of SML’s equity securities on a fully diluted basis"
Sometimes one has to read the agreement to understand what is really meant by the press release that is issued about it.