What seems to me, after a initial review of the financial report is that the lender, by virtue of the all but complete ownership of the majority of shares, decided to increase the O/S , thereby diluting the retail shareholder ownership, INSTEAD of the company spending from its apparent cash reserves.
Why increase the amount of outstanding shares? What are all of the possible reasons to increase from 2.5 bil to 3 billion shares, if there are sufficient reserves?
Is the transfer of relative ownership of any benefit to the retail/common shareholder, like the longs?
Perhaps, once there may be some serious discoveries of precious metals, the common shareholder will be diluted down to 33% due to this dilution and any possible future dilution.
Exactly HOW is the lender, be it WC, Clive, Cowboy Clive, etc. being, in any way, friendly to the existing, common shareholder(s)?
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