The company I picked as a comparison was immaterial. My point was that when a Pinksheets company massively increases the authorized shares, it is for a reason.
The reason is the dilution of shareholders. But, you tell me, what amount of sales would justify a $0.01 price when there are 2.1 billion outstanding shares? Would $1mil in sales justify this? Would the justification hold knowing that the authorized shares were increased for the purpose of dilution?
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