So let me get this straight. Restricted shares means that SOMEONE owned those shares and those shares could NOT be traded, right? So, if they converted them to UNrestricted shares, those shares are now available to be traded, right? Is that called classical "dilution"?
Also, if the person(s) who converted the restricted to unrestricted, does that mean that actually SOLD them? or just made them available for others to trade them?
I know, so many questions - just trying to get facts straight.
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