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hopester

02/13/22 7:08 AM

#44860 RE: jbsliverer #44859

I'm disagree with your example. I believe your're mixing #'s.
Ny examples are of equal # of shares bought of each . The % moves of the lower px stock
Recall, the reason I disputed % gains as a measure of future px gains is based upon comparing equal # of shares, and no $'s invested in those shares.
The implication that % moves up in a stock lends itself to higher prices "tomorrow", is false. That is the basis of my opposition to a posters impliction that is does.

I'm exampling the difference in px movements despite the higher % in the lower px stock. ... all else being equal....
not the am't of money that's invested.

I ask you this: do you believe the implication that % gains or losses over a short period of time is a measure of the direction of the stock in coming days???
I say no matter what kind of example used it does not. Stocks go up or down for a variety of reasons but surely not prior % gains.