Once again it is going over your head. The solyndra case was an example of how NOLS GET DISTRIBUTED TO CREDITORS. It is about the NOLS and TAX LAW you’re focusing on solyndra and mis directing when it isn’t about Solyndra it is about their NOLS being distributed to creditors There NOLS were distributed at the end of the bankruptcy what was known as “the plan” solyndra wasn’t a plan of liquidation or a plan of reorganization, it was both which is why it was called THE PLAN Lehman is not called a plan of reorganization or plan of liquidation it is called THE PLAN I am now assuming that “nols will be fully utizlied to offset debt” means NOLS will be DISTRIBUTED to the remaining claim holders.
Why would Lehman not distribute NOLS to claimants when it is clearly allowed in the tax code?
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