He could easily have purchased stock before the transaction the open market there is nothing in the contract about that one way or the other the other. Stupid if he didn't. Fully diluted means just that as if the preferred shares have been converted. Preferred shares don't votes. Converted shares do. It's as if they had been converted. They've had been converted already. Conversion had been done as if they were converted. Get it. He owns 93% of fully diluted stock which includes preferred as if they had been converted. It includes 8.9 billion. It includes the 10 billion and he owns 93% total as stated in the act by the SEC document.
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