So is it your opinion that the “damages” award of $192 million is cash or other liquid compensation that directly benefits GDSI and or could flow to shareholders OR IS IT your opinion that the judge awarded and made specific identities of these amounts of outstanding liabilities as indicated in his order, and that these costs be deducted from compensation due Bolzans as outlined in the SPA ?, (as the company GDSI has to pay these taxes.)
If you think the judge awarded Bilky and GDSI $192 million why does the judge go to such lengths to identify the exact amounts and identity of the obligations and why did the judge decide to focus on an amount equal to EXACTLY the outstanding taxes due, as “damages” ?
What relationship does outstanding tax obligations have to do with economic damages ?
As always, I look forward to your thoughts.
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