"Preinfected cells? Or postinfected? it was not clear to me. Because preinfection was reported to have much much higher kill rate(97%, was it) it must be postinfection. How good is 50% inhibition in a lab for infected cells?"
Here's the language they used:
"In a new experiment at the RBL in a human lung epithelial cell line, Brilacidin, when directly incubated with the live (or wild type) virus, was shown to inhibit the virus by 50 percent (the IC50 value) at a mid-nanomolar concentration, while remaining non-cytotoxic to cells at high micromolar concentrations—establishing a SI for Brilacidin greater than 300 in this lung cell line."
I can't figure out the pre vs post infected stuff...(somebody must know what "directly incubated with" means)...but the GOAL was to determine the concentration at which the virus was inhibited by 50%, not to determine how much B inhibited the virus as your question seems to suggest. I THINK that needed to be done at least in part in order to calculate the magic Selectivity Index.
The answer to this question appears to be irrelevant (not suggesting it's not meaningful)...
"How good is 50% inhibition in a lab for infected cells?"
...as does this conclusion:
"Because preinfection was reported to have much much higher kill rate(97%, was it) it must be postinfection."
Am I wrong?