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chokum

11/25/19 1:52 PM

#57295 RE: ToddM #57292

Your statement is partially correct in my opinion.

Because the company entered a contractual lending agreement which traded shares for financial funding, the company did start the cycle. But it is the lenders who are selling shares, NOT the company.

But, back the the first point - the company traded the shares in the first place to get the funding they needed. Do we like to see this happening? I sure don't. Is it necessary? For now, I have no other reason to believe that it is.

GLTY


$FLES