You assume wrong. I simply came across the excerpt in the 10-Q while looking for an easy way to refute this: "Despite claims to the contrary, there is no evidence whatsoever that the multi-family office has sold a single share." When I saw that the description said "conversion price equal of the lower of (i) $0.32 per share and...." I stopped what I was doing and posted it. It seemed to me that it might be important to note that that term was potentially operable all of a sudden when it hadn't been at any previous time.
"We see this by the high percentage marked daily in April that quickly dropped off." I do not speak whatever language that is.
"If MM’s are underwater as 4Kids states then the MFO conversions have given them the ability to cover until shares dry up?" Same with whatever that is. They let kids post stuff?
"Or are you stating the company and/or the brokers are in cahoots with the MFO to put shares on the open market with the ability to sell at a profit." "What are you directly alluding to??"
I wasn't posting a secret message or any complicated analysis....no analysis at all, in fact. I was simply pointing out for whoever might be interested that a term of the MFO deal may be coming into play that had heretofore been moot.
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