At this point, I'm not sure what to think.
The idea a person would sell 52m shares, so soon after buying, makes no sense to me!
Is it possible that this simply means the shares she is holding, no longer represent 5% of the class securities ? - ( And that she still owns 52m shares )
"If this statement is being filed to report the fact that as of the date hereof the reporting person has ceased to be the beneficial owner of more than five percent of the class of securities, check the following ? ."
Just my thinking at the moment.