So you think that IPIX is in a position to restrict the global pharmaceutical company from considering other opportunities that may be presented to them and might even require them to advise IPIX of those opportunities? That's what this says, right?
"Some owners add variety to the restrictions on exclusivity. If a prospect receives a purchase inquiry, the owner may prohibit the prospect from responding and may require the prospect to pass the information along to the owner so as to prevent a "flip" of the transaction."
Why stop there? The next sentence says this: "Sometimes the prospect has to pay for exclusivity or extensions of exclusivity."
Do you think IPIX picked up a little extra spending money by offering the global pharmaceutical company exclusivity during the discussion period?
Once again, I think there may be some confusion regarding the party actually holding the cards (although "Well, who has the money?" would suggest that you have no question about that).
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