Sure he might not sell...for some reason I guess. But he has 1.25 billion shares worth of equity in a stock that has a current OS of 9 million.
That is over 99% of the equity.
Why didn’t he split the prefs or alter the conversion terms to maintain the 60/40 split he had? He needed over 50% to have control so the 60% is close and reasonable by OTC standards.
But 99%....???
Right now the company is carrying a market cap of over $3 Billion on a FULLY diluted basis.