Are you referring to the small 30% interest loan that shareholders has been on them for not repaying earlier, or the interest-free loan he gave without any terms/repayment date? If it was the latter, then it sure would be nice if the company had repaid parts of Loan 1 instead, but we can't demand that SIAF doesn't repay an interest-free loan from him (assuming that this doesn't lead to defaulting of course)