Just got off the phone with my accountant, concerning my previous question. He was not exactly sure, he would have to look into it further. His initial thought was that the "wash-sale" rule does apply, but he would have to check to see if the fact that you exercised your rights prior to selling the initial share constitutes a buy agreement, making you possibly exempt. His advice is to question your broker and accountant. States treat it differently as well.
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