This isn't just to you ... so when the company failed to file fins before it was speculated by some on this board that they did so as advised or because it was better for a settlement?
Now, they are filing fins because of a settlement.
How can it be both ways?
And, there is no way they have a settlement already, that's what the next hearing date is for.
I think they just got around to filing them, that's all. There is no mystery here at all.