And again there are couple of clues. One is the changing he made to the interim.analysis trigger. It's all done due to his concern the control is doing better than what he thought or only a fear it will do better than he thought. Another clue is when he said we didn't decide yet the number of patients in the ph3 ovarian because we want to see in the rgbm trial if it match the historical control. Why to mention the rgbm when being asked about ovarian ? Maybe he thinks the low sample of only 256 patients in rgbm caused the control to do better ?
I'm not too concerned if it does as well as ph2 (I hope it does or better!). As long as it works better I think it will be approved. Patients are starting to be scared/concerned to take avastin ... avastin's reward/risk profile is poor ... they will only take it as a last resort.
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