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mikesharen

07/14/06 2:16 PM

#10643 RE: d indian #10638

If the shorts are 3 billion and the outstanding is 3 billion, how can the MMs cover?
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Australia

07/16/06 9:32 AM

#10741 RE: d indian #10638

Should you buy at 0.0001 after the debenture, you would have made at least 500% profit. However, since you are dumb and don't have the ability to predict. You ended up losing money.
Say what would you like to say but those added up numbers indicating very high interests on PAIM.
The shares traded have been high because of profit taking. People are selling and buying. For example, only around 3 billion float (say 1 billion shares are held and not traded and only 2 billion shares are traded). If I buy 2 billion at 0.0002 and then sell them all (2 billion)) at 0.0006. The shares traded are already added up to 4 billion. Then if the price is down at 0.0003, I buy another 1 billion shares. Then, the price goes up to 0.0007 and sell them all (1 billion). The total trades for those events will be 4 billion + 2 billion = 6 billion shares which look like ridiculous because the float was only 3 billion. But it is not since only 2 billion shares were changing hands.