But you would admit, if the primary end point of the Imbruvica P1 was to determine mtd, then that trial was a failure since mtd was never established, right?
Frankly, it took so much time that I got lost in the rhetorics. But after re-reading it still seems that you label a ph1 as a failure if MTD is not reached, yet you won't call the drug a failure when, subsequently, it is approved after a ph2 and a ph3.