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arstegall

08/04/15 7:52 AM

#93555 RE: janice shell #93528

So...Maybe you could explain why on many days, at the closing bell, a sale of only a few shares would occur, well below the sp. A sale so small that the dollar amount would be less than the commission? This was going on long before the grays. If there was never any shorts, as has always been claimed, why would someone just sell that low, that late in the day, lose money, and pay more to the broker than the sell is worth? Fact is, no sain person unless they were short. But since it does not show up as a short it could never be a FTD. There has been links posted by dloggold as to how this happens. A good explanation would be greatly appreciated instead of just acting as if my point has no bearing which would just further prove my point. TIA