ok, and im not arguing or anything, im just trying to understand how shares can be issued/granted/provided/given to an insider from the authorized, and NOT be considered part of the outstanding. then in what number count are they held, becuase if they are issued-- they are no longer just authorized, becuase-- to my understanding-- authorized shares are simply the number of shares a company can draw from to put into the outstanding, and not all outstanding shares are in the tradeable float, they can be held- which these shares appear to be-- and when actually sold by the person holding they then are considered part of the tradeable float. are you saying that the have been issued to the insider and still part of authorized, and when they are excersised they will then be simply in the outstanding count only?
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