The problem with that statement is that it is inherently false. Cute, because of how it is a play off my post, but inherently false nonetheless.
4 month downtrend. It can't "continue" in an uptrend when said uptrend doesn't exist. And no - a trend based on prices a year ago is inadequate considering the catalysts involved in it's rise to highs; those catalysts do not exist now, and by nature, will not exist again....not to mention it will take far more buying pressure to reach prior highs now than it did in the past.
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