Certainly they marked them short in accordance with SEC Rule 200 due to the broker dealer handling your transaction not owning or having physical possession of the shares. What part of the SEC Rule 200 is not CLEAR as to why the trade will be marked short? Do you have something that can refute Rule 200 as posted?
I really dont care what someone does with their HESG pile of dogshit position. My post was just showing how Short Volume is meaningless and that is all.
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