Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[obiterdictum]

I could not resist. The trade, as are all trades, was a sell and a buy.

If indeed all of the shares were done as one transaction as is assumed, questions that can be raised are :

1. Was it a buy to open a long position and a sale to take profits?
2. Was it a buy to open a long position and a sale to open a short position?
3. Was it buy to close a short position to take profits and a sale to take profits?

How can one clearly and substantially determine the answer?

Are there other questions that can be asked about this transaction?

Why was the price fractionated at $ 3.0017?