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Friday, January 17, 2014 1:25:38 PM
Voting on issuing shares would have occurred in November or prior, assuming there was actually a capital influx at that time. If anyone owned shares prior to that time they should be able to directly answer your question about that. But, I can not find any share holders meetings for this company and that would have been the event at which this would have occurred.
If there was a considered future dilution, there are 3billion shares currently and Bill's voting rights trump that. So it wouldn't matter what anyone on this message board would vote.
The value in a company is not in the product it is in manipulation of the float. The shares that are outstanding were not executable options so most of the people in play here have no capital investment in this company. And then ones that do have recent shares issued at 0.0001 so as long as the stock is above that 6 months from when they were issued it is basically free profit.
If you want an example, look into CYMA. It is not tradable yet but you can go through the initial filings this week and see that most employees were not given stock but options so each has to purchased them. Those are the Form 4's.
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