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OT: Wash Sale Rules

Tax time again....ugh.

I'm sure some of you have come across this before, so perhaps you can help me understand why a capital loss is disallowed in the following situation:

I bought stock A on three separate occasions, averaging down each time. I accumulated 650 shares total. I sold the entire position in one day with a loss on each of the three blocks of shares. However, because the last purchase of 200 shares was within the 30 day window prior to the sale date, I have lost approx 30% of the capital loss due to a triggering of the wash sale rule.

At the end of the transaction I own zero shares of stock A. Is the disallowed capital loss permanent? If so, why? I was under the assumption that any disallowed losses via wash sales are added back to the cost basis of any shares that have been repurchased during the wash sale window. That assumes that you own shares at the END of all these transactions. What happens if you liquidated the entire position but your last set of purchases triggered the disallowed loss? Are you unable to use that disallowed loss in the calendar year you took it in? What could be done to "recapture" it?

Thanks!