So we heard thousands of times for years about how the evil doctor was going to force a buyout at .07 because he had majority vote which makes him a dictator, immune to security laws and minority shareholder rights (LOL). Then he buys 96 million shares at .206 yet somehow the rest of the tiny minority shares in the float, a tiny fraction of the .206 bought shares, will be swallowed for .07 because ..... Wait you lost me. Why is it again and how would this fantasy play out explaining to a fair opinion group how .07 is fair when he bought at .206?
ROFL!!!!!!!
Can you name an example in the history of the entire stock market where a buyout of minor shareholders occurred at a price 1/3rd the buyout of majority shareholders?
It's over, dude. Longs win. The .07 mythical buyout always was bullshit.
Raw
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