TF is correct in that it is a myth, I can attest to this. My broker has used shares from my margin account to loan out many times even in situations where I have had an active limited sell-order for shares with a target price for example only about 5-10% above current share price (btw the purpose of these sell-orders have been to sell the shares when the target price was reached, not to try to block the shares from being loaned out). How do I know? It is easy to see on your monthly brokerage statements when the dividends are paid out. Instead of receiving dividends from the whole block of shares owned (let's say that I owned 100 shares in company ABC), I received dividends for example from only 80 shares. These are the shares that were not on loan to someone else. I received cash (substitute payments) in lieu of dividends for the remaining 20 shares that I owned but were on loan by the broker.
There are two main problems with this in my opinion: 1. I end up paying more in tax. Cash received in lieu of dividends are taxed at a persons marginal tax rate, while dividends are taxed at a lower tax rate. 2. My long position is at least temporarily impacted negatively since someone uses “my” shares to take a short position.
Correct, the broker is by law prevented to loan out shares from a person's cash account. But just as TF states, the only way to be 100% sure is to be in possession of the stock certificates.
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