Saturday, June 08, 2013 7:11:29 PM
So let me get this straight:
1. in 2004, MDMN as NO property.
2. They had just defaulted on $9 million.
3. Larry and Greg get elected to the BOD.
4. The creditors forgive the $9 million.
5. The company is a shell with NO property.
6. Greg, Les and some guy named Ian go to Chile and chat with Juan.
7. They pay their way because the company is broke.
8. Juan agrees to give MDMN (I remind you a broke company with NO property) 50% of his claims.
9. Juan further agrees to assume the debt of the company. Wait, I thought the creditors forgave all the debt...
10. Juan continues to pay money out of his own pocket to maintain the property which is "one heck of a lot of money".
11. "What has he received"?
12. No member of the BOD can sell shares.
13. Les will take a bullet for Juan, how very noble.
Someone please explain to me how this sequence of event makes any financial sense whatsoever? Why would Juan give up 50% stake in his claims to a bankrupt company that owned nothing? If I missed something, please help me understand this arrangement.
Malitia
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