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Re: mybullcharts post# 1849

Monday, 02/18/2013 12:23:57 AM

Monday, February 18, 2013 12:23:57 AM

Post# of 1996
If you take the time to actually ask why the MA(50) shows an uptrend, you would realize just how erroneous that statement really is. The MA(50) has been at .0001 or below for the past 50 days. The uptrend is based on a 508350 share ask slap on 2/14. All it would take to end this "uptrend" would be 1 share sold at .0001 and the MA(50) would reverse down. There is no uptrend.
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