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Re: starbuxsux post# 1455

Friday, 01/18/2013 6:53:00 AM

Friday, January 18, 2013 6:53:00 AM

Post# of 5932
Question for the board: let's get some dialogue started this a.m.

Someone posed this question to me: If APF530 only demonstrated statistically non-inferior efficacy from their trials, why would a Dr. use this medication if it's only "as good" as the current go-to treatment?

Comments?

Link for definition of statistically non-inferior efficacy:

http://www.statistical-solutions-software.com/superiority-vs-equivalence-vs-non-inferiority/

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