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Re: slyestjester post# 25356

Friday, 12/14/2012 5:36:14 PM

Friday, December 14, 2012 5:36:14 PM

Post# of 163718

Ecuador's math is completely theoretical.



It's not theoretical in the least. (Unless this is another correlation of triangles thingy-do)

You can separate the return on investment from the capital invested from income, grants, and loans vs. the cash from equity which created the dilution.

Why would the last portion carry an ROI 5x the rest of cap ex investment?

We're talking about the last $15M of $100M capital development. All of that capital development occurs in the real world, and all of it promotes Solomon's visions.

That's a very, very good thing, imo, for all the capital development that does not dilute eps too severely (the last $15M)

Again, this is simple: $1.00 of earnings with 100M shares is $100M. With 130M shares, $1.00 per share is $130M. So, how is that last $15m (if shares sold at $.50) of investment going to generate $30M in net profit first year ($75M rev @ 40% net margin), and every year thereafter? Splain me that, with or without theoretical help.

Sure, there are some other factors, and if the math were remotely close, then the tertiary theoretical aspects might make some difference, but nothing on this order.

I understand the dilution is necessary argument, but am unconvinced; but I don't get the "dilution is good" argument, for which I think you are the only adherent. Capital development expanse is not dilution; only the marginal amount that is probably discretionary, imo. (open to arguments that it isn't discretionary; actually would like to be convinced).



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