Wednesday, December 05, 2012 8:56:54 PM
From the press release:
"The Company has not entered into any financing transactions that would cause shareholder dilution since the Company's 10Q was reported on November 19th, 2012."
Why didn't the C.E.O. state that there had been no such transactions this quarter which began on October 1?
Is it possible that in the six week period just prior to the increase in authorized shares to 1,000,000,000 that one or more dilutive financial transactions occurred?
The next 10-Q will disclose whether or not the C.E.O. was technically telling the truth while not disclosing all the facts.
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