Admittedly this is OT here - LOL Can anyone explain to me how this is possible? "The MM can wait the full two weeks inbetween reporting date to settleing the account...lots of money can be made in that two week period and is."
How is it possible to make "lots of money" shorting the stock when on the day of the alleged shorting the 600,000 shares in question were selling below 4 cents a share? That's a maximum of $30k, assuming the shares are ultimately obtained for .00.
I don't buy this nonsense and I don't understand the technical details, but the very possibility of it seems illogical.
Register for free to join our community of investors and share your ideas. You will also get access to streaming quotes, interactive charts, trades, portfolio, live options flow and more tools.