So as the class A shares trade the B shares will correlate correct. So If it winds up being 1 A for 30 B and A shares move 1 dollar than B shares move .03 cents correct. So if 10% class A shares are issued to stockholders of that date which would be 10 million shares, that class should trade really well as essentially it is really low float right? I am just a little confused and trying to figure it out.
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