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Re: chevdawg18 post# 157717

Wednesday, 08/24/2005 4:22:37 PM

Wednesday, August 24, 2005 4:22:37 PM

Post# of 279080
So, for example, in today's trading, say that 40 million posted after hours was a buy, and that the selling MM was out of inventory, so he went to other MMs and bought his 40 million at 13 to make the sell. These transactions were posted immediatly and appeared as dumping, but were not. Then when the MM had his 40 million tranfered into his inventory, he went ahead and posted the 14 buy, but it was already afterhours when it became posted. Would it be something to that effect, thus keeping the trading down in the process. Why else would someone sell 40 million shares into a market when 95% of the days trades were buys? Just wondering.-TW

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