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Thursday, April 12, 2012 3:12:32 PM
Lets say for example I converted 2mil shares purchased at an avg. of .0028. roughly that would have been 5600 dollars worth of SDVI converted to 10,000 Graffiti shares.
Ok so now say for example I have 2 mil more shares that are going to convert over to Graffiti shares in the coming weeks. If I have an avg. of .0006 that cost roughly 1200 dollars that would convert to 10,000 Graffiti shares if were using the same 200/1 ratio.
So how is that going to work with Graffiti? I mean if Graffiti's share price was .1 all the 20,000 shares from above would be worth 2000 dollars... A little curious how this will work seeing with this situation I would be screwed out of quite a bit of money unless Graffiti's share price was much more. IMO
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