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steved_45

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steved_45

Re: apprenante post# 5220

Sunday, 03/25/2012 8:15:30 PM

Sunday, March 25, 2012 8:15:30 PM

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Not true. For a foreign patent to be valid it must be 'published'. Being granted a patent in a foreign country fulfills the 'published' requirement.

If what you are saying is true (which it's not) can you imagine the utter chaos that multinational firms would have to deal with? Think about how many US firms could legally ripoff European and Asian patents and vice versa...

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