jpr, you bring up a fair question, which is all I am pointing out.
SP has to know when someone is converting note to shares. Thus, he knows when dilution occurs.
SP doesn't have control over when one chooses to sell.
Which should leave one to question this statement.
If this note holder had converted, SP would know this. If the note holder was cashing in shares via selling (after conversion), then he has no control.
I just find these explanations misleading.
I am long Tivus too but prefer it move on it's own fundamental merits. Not misleading jibberish.
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