The IRS must be full of pranksters:
"must be claimed in the year that the criminal indictments are handed down"
Why allow the loss in the year that the criminals are ACCUSED of the crime, which is all an indictment is, when they have yet to be tried? How is that in any way connected to the timing of the loss? It doesn't even establish that there was a crime.
Anyway, you're right about the indictments having occurred in 2010, if that's really determinative.
I'm tryin ta think but nuttin happens......Curly