So the observed benefit with Vitamin D could just represent regression to the mean?
I think (statisticians might correct me) that if the vitamin D group would have regressed, then it could have been regression towards the mean, but its rates of virologic response were stat-sig better at 4, 12 weeks, and 6 months after cessation of treatment and the rates of relapse and non-response were stat-sig lower in this group compared with the no vitamin D group plus there was no viral breakthrough. However, these results must be repeated at least in a bigger and double blinded trial (would be interesting to see data in interferon-sparing regimen and correlation to IL28B genotype).
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