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Re: None

Friday, 07/08/2005 2:06:19 PM

Friday, July 08, 2005 2:06:19 PM

Post# of 82595
20 for 1 or 1000 for 1?

One of the better choices that I alluded to in a previous post would have been a greater split. Why didn’t management consider a 1000 for 1 split? I have stated before the only time I would ever vote for a r/s is for a price above 5 so that we would have more institutional investor interest and possibly increase our buy side volume or to get on an exchange. So, why are we doing a 20 for 1 instead of a 1000 for 1? Where is the wisdom in this move? I clearly understand the dilution aspects of the 20 for 1 but why not do the 1000 instead? As it stands at a 20 for 1 at .0075 we will be moved to a .15pps and if we would have done a 1000 for 1 at .0075 we would have been moved to a 7.5pps. Can anyone help me understand the logic?

Big Blue
Long, Holding, Investor